Earlier today, I received an interesting inquiry from Lex
Gill, a student at McGill who is taking a course with a distinguished political
theorist who recently joined the McGill Law Faculty. Since it raises a question that may be of
general interest to readers of this blog, I have decided to reply in a post
rather than by private e-mail. Ms. Gill
has given me permission to use her name.
Here is her entire message:
“Dear Professor Wolff:
My name is Lex, and I'm a student in a class on legal
philosophy offered by Prof. Daniel Weinstock at McGill University. I'm writing
because I hope you might be able to clarify something in your writing, if you
have a moment. Please don't feel under any obligation to respond - I'm sure
you're quite busy and it's quite possible my question has been answered
elsewhere. A few weeks ago the class read excerpts from In Defense of
Anarchism in the context of a larger conversation about law's authority. My
understanding of your argument in favour of unanimous, direct democracy is that
any compromise to such a model (i.e., representative democracy or
majoritarianism) poses either similar logistical barriers as direct democracy
does (a 'strict agency' model of representation) or fails to respect the
principle of individual autonomy.
Something that I didn't understand about this argument in
favour of unanimous, direct democracy is maybe put rather crudely here: what about the problem of a minority
veto? It seems to me that you can easily imagine a political community
where an extraordinary vast majority of people share a position, but one or two
individuals disagree. In exercising that right to disagree, in your model of
unanimity their vote would amount to a veto. To this end, I don't believe
that a system of unanimity actually protects from the kind of marginalization
that ends up being a risk in majoritarian democracies. I mean that, in the case
of a majoritarian democracy, one could imagine the possibility of a permanent
minority. But what about a permanent majority that is nonetheless unable
to act in their own interests? What about a situation where a system of
unanimity actually does nothing to protect minority interests, but rather
privileges an unjust status quo? Surely
some element of the principle of autonomy includes a "freedom to" as
well as a "freedom from"? I'm wondering how then, at least in an
ideal model, you would accommodate for this problem?
As I said, it could be possible that you've answered this
question elsewhere or many times before, but I spoke to Prof. Weinstock and he
was unsure how you would respond so he suggested I send an email.
Thank you for your time and thought on this. Lex Gill”
I am not at all
busy, and I am delighted to see that something I wrote forty-nine years ago and
published forty-four years ago is still being discussed intelligently. Mr. Gill raises several important points. Let me begin by saying that I intended
unanimous direct democracy as a limiting case designed to exhibit the impossibility
of a de jure legitimate state under
any but the most constrained of circumstances.
It is common when making truly rigorous arguments [in logic or
mathematics, say] to consider what happens in limiting cases or at the
boundaries. If I may give an example
from Classical Political Economy [since that is in my mind just now], the
thesis that commodities in a situation of perfect competition exchange at their
labor values is true in the limiting case of a zero rate of profit. The price equations, with π = 0, reduce to the labor value equations and
the proposition is trivial. The reason
for showing this is certainly not to suggest that there ever is a zero profit
rate in a functioning capitalist economy, but to make it easy to see just
exactly why prices deviate from labor values save when there is, in Marx’s
terms, equal organic composition of capital.
Analogously, my
purpose in arguing that a unanimous direct democracy preserves the autonomy of
citizens while establishing the moral bindingness of the laws of the state is
to set aside for a bit the problems attendant upon representation and focus
rather on the insoluble problems with majority rule or any other way of
transforming the will of individual citizens into a unified legislative will of
a de jure legitimate state.
That said, it
happens that when I was writing In Defense
of Anarchism, there was some interesting discussion going on of cases that
could be subsumed under the rubric of “unanimous direct democracy.” For example, the first version of John Rawls’
theory of justice [in his essay, “Justice as Fairness”] analyzed the
circumstances under which a community of individuals would arrive at unanimous
agreement on a set of principle for settling disputes concerning questions of distributive
justice. Earlier still, modern
neo-classical economic theory devoted a good deal of energy examining what
could be said about situations in which unanimity partial orderings could be
identified under conditions of what came to be referred to as Pareto
optimality. And of course all classical
social contract theory sooner or later appeals to an agreement founding a
political community whose bindingness on the participants is inferred from a
unanimous social contract.
Ms. Gill is of
course completely correct that unanimous direct democracy would be utterly
unworkable as the decision rule for a real society. [I believe in the nineteenth century the
Polish parliament, made up of nobles, operated on a rule of unanimity. Needless to say, not much got done.] By the way, my elaboration of a framework for
Majoritarian Direct Democracy – what I called television democracy – was really
meant as a bit of Swiftian satire intended to expose the anti-democratic
beliefs of political theorists and commentators who pretend to be partisans of
Democracy. But if I am not mistaken,
some folks in Canada actually got a grant not long after my little book
appeared to try it out. I have no idea
what results they came up with.
It has been
forty-four years since Harper Torchbooks published In Defense of Anarchism, all 82 pages of it, and unless I am very
much mistaken, no one has laid a glove on the argument in the intervening time,
so I think we can take it as an established fact that I was right. Since it is very rarely the case in
Philosophy that anyone is right, I take some pride in that.
18th century. In the 19th century there was no Polish parliament as there was no independent Poland!
ReplyDeletewhoops. Thank you. I was just dragging that out of my lizard brain.
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