I understand that several Marxist economists are preparing a
response to my critique of Marx's labor theory of value, but while they are at
it, let me drop the other shoe. I have
said many times that I think Marx is correct in asserting that capitalism rests
on the exploitation of the working class [which class includes more of us than
you might imagine.] I have also referred
to my published essay, "A Critique and Reinterpretation of Marx's Labor
Theory of Value," accessible via
the link at the top of this blog to box.net.
But thus far, I have only summarized my critique. What is my reinterpretation? Let me see whether I can do this without any
math.
If you look at the labor value equations one can write from
the specification of an economy's inputs and outputs in each line of
production, you can easily identify the labor inputs because the letter l or the Greek letter λ is used to identify
them. But that is just a labeling
convention. Suppose the labor inputs were
represented simply by aq, so that one could not tell from the notation
which were the labor inputs. Where in the formal structure of the equations
does Marx capture the distinction, supposedly unique to labor, between labor
and labor power? The answer, presumably, is that labor inputs
are put into the equations at full value, as it were -- one unit of labor
counts for one -- whereas the iron, corn, and other inputs in the labor value
equations are put into the equations at their discounted values, which is to
say discounted by their labor values. The
key to all of Marx's conclusions is that the labor inputs are entered at full
value, supposedly because "labor is the substance of value."
But this is a classic example of what is correctly called begging the question. People defending Marx say that the
correctness of Marx's mathematical claims [such as the claim that commodities
exchange at their labor values] proves that labor is the substance of
value. But to prove those mathematical
claims, they construct equations that assume
that labor is the substance of value [so that they enter the labor inputs at
full value.] By showing formally that
all of Marx's claims for labor values can be replicated for corn values or iron
values, I demonstrated that Marx failed to establish his fundamental claim that
labor is the substance of value.
But Marx's fundamental intuition about capitalism really is
correct. What he needs [and we as well]
is some alternative formal interpretation of that intuition that, when embodied
in a set of equations, does in fact
identify labor as different from all other inputs, not by a mere notational convention, but by the structure of the
equations.
An obvious but wrong answer is that labor is a direct input
into every production process whereas no other input can make that claim. But that is a mistake, the full unpacking of
which would take me more time and lead us all deeper into the weeds than I
think it wise to venture here. Let me
just say this: If we restrict ourselves
to inputs that are directly or indirectly
required in all lines of production, then my mathematical refutation of the
claim that labor is the substance of value is correct. For example, food is required by workers, so
it is indirectly required in all lines of production. [Trust me, it is not a satisfactory reply to
point out that no particular food is required by all workers. I go into this in my article.]
In my essay, I offer an answer. I do not claim it is the necessarily right
answer, just that it captures what Marx has to say about labor and workers, and
it yields all the desired mathematical results.
Frankly, I hoped that when I laid my idea out in my essay, some Marxist
with much more mathematical ability than I would pick it up and develop it into
a robust theory, as they say. But since
no one read the essay, so far as I can tell, that never happened. Oh well, four hundred years from now, someone
writing the early history of the emergence of socialism in the bowels of
capitalism [or in the womb, if that sounds better] may hit on my essay when
doing a search in whatever takes the place of the cloud, and I will at last get
some respect. Sigh.]
Here is the essence of my idea without all the linear
algebra I laboriously worked up to give it an aura of respectability. Marx says two things about capitalism, among
many others, that we can use as keys to an alternative analysis. The first is that workers are historically
robbed of their access to and control over the means of production, until at
last they have nothing but their ability to work, their labor, and are forced
to sell that labor for a wage. The
second is that in the mystified and ideologically encoded rationalization of
capitalism, workers are treated as commodity producers, on a par with all other
commodity producers, who enter the free market and strike a free bargain for
the "commodity" with buyers -- which is to say, with employers. How can we model this historically unequal
and conceptually mystified situation in the equations of a capitalist economy?
My suggestion was this:
Together with all the price equations defining the price per unit output
of iron, corn, and so forth, add an equation for the "industry that
produces labor.” Now, in all the price
equations there is a profit markup represented by the expression (1+π). By hypothesis, competition and the movement
of capital from sector to sector in pursuit of the highest possible rate of
profit results in the establishment if a single economy-wide profit rate. So, Ricardo and Marx [and other economists]
claim, investment in iron, in corn, in cars, or in hats will produce the same
rate of profit on the value of the invested capital. If a capitalist is making 4% in hats when coat
manufacturers are making 6%, he will pull his capital out of hats and put it in
coats. Shifts in output, intersecting
with market demand, will move prices, which will move the profit rate, until
everyone in hats, coats, or any other sector is making the same rate of return.
But though we talk about workers as producers of the
commodity labor, they and they alone
are unable to move their capital into other lines of production if their return
is inadequate, because their "capital" is their bodies, and as the
saying goes, for them to "cash in" their capital is to die! So the system of equations must actually have
two rates of return: One is (1+π) for everyone but the
labor producing sector. The other, which
we may call r, will appear as the
factor (1+r) in the labor producing
sector. And it is quite possible that r will be zero even when π is quite substantial.
Now, this is really an odd way of talking, or indeed, of
calculating, but it captures perfectly the ironic structure of capitalism,
which talks as though workers were petty capitalists while really treating them
as expropriated propertyless victims of exploitation. [My book, Moneybags
Must Be So Lucky discusses at length the deeper significance of the role of
irony in Marx's economic writings.]
What is the consequence of the fact that the labor producers
cannot move their "capital" in pursuit of a return on their
"investment"? The simple
answer, easily demonstrated mathematically, is that the prices they pay for
their "inputs" [which is to
say their food, clothing, and shelter] are driven up above their "labor
values." What is more, the extra
amount they are thus forced to pay for their food, clothing, and shelter exactly
equals the profit reaped by the capitalists in the system.
Now, the virtue of this novel and unfamiliar way of modeling
what is going on is that the anomalous condition of the workers, and thus of
labor, is built into the formal structure of the price equations and is not
simply a just so story told as an accompaniment
of the equations.
This way of modeling the economy also allows us to analyze
the "relative exploitation" whereby those high up on the income
pyramid exploit those lower down even while they in turn are being exploited by
those who control capital.
Well, I assume that I have now lost all but the most indefatigable
of you, so I shall go back to playing FreeCell and searching databases for
charitable foundations.
I would have to re-read everything a few times before I could comment intelligently on your contribution. But what strikes me about the math factor is its bias. For example, Marx's great insight here is his distinction between labor power and labor. Enter alienation. But mathematically alienated labor and labor are the same (no?). Which brings me back to Piketty: what's different? Ans: the data. Reminds me of the time I was in therapy explaining how my father, upon his return from work, would inspect carefully how I happened to mow the grass that day. The therapist noted that he needed empirical evidence to justify his feelings. So where does Marx's wonderful distinction between labor as human emancipation and alienated labor fit into any of these calculations? It seems that once we take that step into math, which may be necessary for determining what's behind prices, the early Marx drops out.
ReplyDeletewell, I spent two books trying to show that the early Marx does not "drop out" when you capture his insights properly in a formal analysis, right up to showing how the ironic voice of Marx finds a place in the equations.
ReplyDeleteIronic voice in the equations. This is great stuff. There's so much to read!
ReplyDelete