Derek posts this comment: "Hope you're enjoying the trip! Perhaps you could say something on the suggestion that Marx employs the LTV ironically (http://slackwire.blogspot.ca/2014/09/piketty-and-money-view-reply-to-mrmister.html). Seems implausible to me, but I'll also confess that I'd never even entertained its possibility until just now, so maybe it will grow on me. Since you've written interesting things on irony and the LTV in Marx, maybe you'd indulge us (me) in taking this up?"
I am always happy to oblige, but I am a trifle puzzled. Does Derek want me to talk about the question whether the Labor Theory of Value is employed by Marx ironically, something which he notes I have already written about? Or does he want me to respond to whatever is at the site for which he offers a URL? I copied the link and pasted it into my command line, but up popped an error message. As for the subject itself, I have indeed written an entire small book about it. Does Derek want me to summarize what I said there?
A little clarity, please.