Tim poses two questions raised by my brief post about
Kant. Here they are:
1)
why does human agency entail that I must take de
jure possession of some portion of the external world, rather than de facto
possession of it?
2) What does this kind of argument establish about the character of the property arrangements supposedly necessitated by the conditions of rational agency? Presumably, Kant is right that rational agency necessarily involves the private consumption/use of some portion of the external world. But isn't that different from it entailing that I should thereby acquire a private property right in the thing - which involves my right to dispose over and exchange the thing as I see fit?
2) What does this kind of argument establish about the character of the property arrangements supposedly necessitated by the conditions of rational agency? Presumably, Kant is right that rational agency necessarily involves the private consumption/use of some portion of the external world. But isn't that different from it entailing that I should thereby acquire a private property right in the thing - which involves my right to dispose over and exchange the thing as I see fit?
The first question, I am afraid, arises simply because of the brevity with which I summarized my essay. The full answer, which can be found there, involves Kant’s distinction between what he calls sensible and intelligible possession – what might also be called possession de facto and possession de jure. Roughly, he thinks that the rational requirement of universality of willing entails that intelligible possession is possible only insofar as I allow to others the equal right to claim intelligible possession of some portion of the material world. Since reason demands that I adopt as my maxim only that rule that could be a universal law for all rational agents, it follows, he argues, that I must ground my actions on intelligible possession, not mere sensible possession. The latter is of course possible, but it is not in accord with the dictates of reason.
The second question is very interesting indeed, and raises
all manner of issues. Even though Kant
died in 1804, at a time when capitalism had not yet come to the Prussia in
which he lived his entire life, Kant’s political theory is an extremely
abstract theoretical rationalization of capitalist social relations of
production. Just as he argued in the First Critique that there must be some
system of pure mathematics knowable a
priori, and simply assumed that that meant Euclidean Geometry, the
mathematics with which he was familiar, so when he argued that reason requires
some system of property, the only form of that social institution that he could
imagine was private property of the robust sort required by capitalism.
As Tim correctly observes, the necessity under which we
stand of appropriating portions of the material world for the pursuit if our
ends in turn entails that some legal institution of property is required, if we
are to emerge from the pre-contractual strife of “the war of all against all,”
in Hobbes’ famous phrase. But nothing in
that general requirement implies that property must be held by individuals,
rather than collectives. And it most
certainly does not entail that the means of production on whose employment we
all depend for our survival must or even should be privately owned. A factory owned by the workers who labor in
it is a piece of the material world whose specific use by those workers requires
that they be in a position to exploit it for their collective purposes and
equally exclude others from appropriating it.
It is, in that sense, their property.
But nothing in the general analysis of the concept of property dictates
how a piece of property should be owned, or against whom those property rights
are correctly asserted.
So all you socialist Kant-lovers out there, be
reassured. You can set The Collected Works of Immanuel Kant
next to The Collected Works of Marx and
Engels next to one another on your shelves, as they are on mine, without
fear of contradiction.